Philippines 2:6-7 Revisited

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I received a rebuttal to my post on Philippians 2:6,7. The person said I was correct that the lesson was one of humility but then my reasoning derailed beyond that. He claimed that Jesus, as God, did indeed make himself lesser than himself in that he went from being God (in heaven), to being human. He asserted this is exactly what Paul meant when he wrote that Jesus "took on a slave's form..." 

So let's consider that possibility. If Jesus, as God, left heaven, then that would mean he indeed was God on earth. So then, to whom was Jesus praying to in Luke 22:39-42, and why would he say “not my will, but yours” if indeed both the Father & Jesus were God? Wouldn't it be impossible for them to have separate “wills”? (See also John 6:38) Additionally, when Jesus said he does nothing of his own originality, then whose original example was he using? (John 14:10) Although I can cite many more, here is just one more thought: When the resurrected Jesus told Mary that he had yet to ascend to his God and Father, how could that be, seeing as he was God? (John 20:17) Clearly, none of these other scriptures would make any sense given the viewpoint of my objector.

Note: Another interesting point about John 14:10 (linked above), is how other versions render it. If we want to take Jesus’ words literally in this passage, then we’d have to believe that the Father was actually inside Jesus. So again, if the Father was inside Jesus, then why would Jesus raise his eyes and pray heaven-ward? In fact, why would he pray at all, seeing as he was/is God? Clearly the trinity teaching and/or the equality of the Father and Son teaching is not logical, not scriptural and certainly not something the early Christians believed.

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